350-701 Exam Format | Course Contents | Course Outline | Exam Syllabus | Exam Objectives
350-701 SCOR
Certifications: CCNP Security, CCIE Security, Cisco Certified Specialist - Security Core
Duration: 120 minutes
This exam tests your knowledge of implementing and operating core security technologies, including:
Network security
Cloud security
Content security
Endpoint protection and detection
Secure network access
Visibility and enforcement
Exam Description
The Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies v1.0 (SCOR 350-701) exam is a 120-minute exam associated with the CCNP Security, Cisco Certified Specialist - Security Core, and CCIE Security certifications. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of implementing and operating core security technologies including network security, cloud security, content security, endpoint protection and detection, secure network access, visibility and enforcements. The course, Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.
25% 1.0 Security Concepts
1.1 Explain common threats against on-premises and cloud environments
1.1.a On-premises: viruses, trojans, DoS/DDoS attacks, phishing, rootkits, man-in-themiddle attacks, SQL injection, cross-site scripting, malware
1.1.b Cloud: data breaches, insecure APIs, DoS/DDoS, compromised credentials
1.2 Compare common security vulnerabilities such as software bugs, weak and/or hardcoded passwords, SQL injection, missing encryption, buffer overflow, path traversal, cross-site scripting/forgery
1.3 Describe functions of the cryptography components such as hashing, encryption, PKI, SSL, IPsec, NAT-T IPv4 for IPsec, pre-shared key and certificate based authorization
1.4 Compare site-to-site VPN and remote access VPN deployment types such as sVTI, IPsec, Cryptomap, DMVPN, FLEXVPN including high availability considerations, and AnyConnect
1.5 Describe security intelligence authoring, sharing, and consumption
1.6 Explain the role of the endpoint in protecting humans from phishing and social engineering attacks
1.7 Explain North Bound and South Bound APIs in the SDN architecture
1.8 Explain DNAC APIs for network provisioning, optimization, monitoring, and troubleshooting
1.9 Interpret basic Python scripts used to call Cisco Security appliances APIs
20% 2.0 Network Security
2.1 Compare network security solutions that provide intrusion prevention and firewall capabilities
2.2 Describe deployment models of network security solutions and architectures that provide intrusion prevention and firewall capabilities
2.3 Describe the components, capabilities, and benefits of NetFlow and Flexible NetFlow records
2.4 Configure and verify network infrastructure security methods (router, switch, wireless)
2.4.a Layer 2 methods (Network segmentation using VLANs and VRF-lite; Layer 2 and port security; DHCP snooping; Dynamic ARP inspection; storm control; PVLANs to segregate network traffic; and defenses against MAC, ARP, VLAN hopping, STP, and DHCP rogue attacks
2.4.b Device hardening of network infrastructure security devices (control plane, data plane, management plane, and routing protocol security)
2.5 Implement segmentation, access control policies, AVC, URL filtering, and malware protection
2.6 Implement management options for network security solutions such as intrusion prevention and perimeter security (Single vs. multidevice manager, in-band vs. out-ofband, CDP, DNS, SCP, SFTP, and DHCP security and risks)
2.7 Configure AAA for device and network access (authentication and authorization, TACACS+, RADIUS and RADIUS flows, accounting, and dACL)
2.8 Configure secure network management of perimeter security and infrastructure devices (secure device management, SNMPv3, views, groups, users, authentication, and encryption, secure logging, and NTP with authentication)
2.9 Configure and verify site-to-site VPN and remote access VPN
2.9.a Site-to-site VPN utilizing Cisco routers and IOS
2.9.b Remote access VPN using Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility client
2.9.c Debug commands to view IPsec tunnel establishment and troubleshooting
15% 3.0 Securing the Cloud
3.1 Identify security solutions for cloud environments
3.1.a Public, private, hybrid, and community clouds
3.1.b Cloud service models: SaaS, PaaS, IaaS (NIST 800-145)
3.2 Compare the customer vs. provider security responsibility for the different cloud service models
3.2.a Patch management in the cloud
3.2.b Security assessment in the cloud
3.2.c Cloud-delivered security solutions such as firewall, management, proxy, security intelligence, and CASB
3.3 Describe the concept of DevSecOps (CI/CD pipeline, container orchestration, and security
3.4 Implement application and data security in cloud environments
3.5 Identify security capabilities, deployment models, and policy management to secure the cloud
3.6 Configure cloud logging and monitoring methodologies
3.7 Describe application and workload security concepts
15% 4.0 Content Security
4.1 Implement traffic redirection and capture methods
4.2 Describe web proxy identity and authentication including transparent user identification
4.3 Compare the components, capabilities, and benefits of local and cloud-based email and web solutions (ESA, CES, WSA)
4.4 Configure and verify web and email security deployment methods to protect onpremises and remote users (inbound and outbound controls and policy management)
4.5 Configure and verify email security features such as SPAM filtering, antimalware filtering, DLP, blacklisting, and email encryption
4.6 Configure and verify secure internet gateway and web security features such as blacklisting, URL filtering, malware scanning, URL categorization, web application filtering, and TLS decryption
4.7 Describe the components, capabilities, and benefits of Cisco Umbrella
4.8 Configure and verify web security controls on Cisco Umbrella (identities, URL content settings, destination lists, and reporting)
10% 5.0 Endpoint Protection and Detection
5.1 Compare Endpoint Protection Platforms (EPP) and Endpoint Detection & Response (EDR) solutions
5.2 Explain antimalware, retrospective security, Indication of Compromise (IOC), antivirus, dynamic file analysis, and endpoint-sourced telemetry
5.3 Configure and verify outbreak control and quarantines to limit infection
5.4 Describe justifications for endpoint-based security
5.5 Describe the value of endpoint device management and asset inventory such as MDM
5.6 Describe the uses and importance of a multifactor authentication (MFA) strategy
5.7 Describe endpoint posture assessment solutions to ensure endpoint security
5.8 Explain the importance of an endpoint patching strategy
15% 6.0 Secure Network Access, Visibility, and Enforcement
6.1 Describe identity management and secure network access concepts such as guest services, profiling, posture assessment and BYOD
6.2 Configure and verify network access device functionality such as 802.1X, MAB, WebAuth
6.3 Describe network access with CoA
6.4 Describe the benefits of device compliance and application control
6.5 Explain exfiltration techniques (DNS tunneling, HTTPS, email, FTP/SSH/SCP/SFTP, ICMP, Messenger, IRC, NTP)
6.6 Describe the benefits of network telemetry
6.7 Describe the components, capabilities, and benefits of these security products and solutions
6.7.a Cisco Stealthwatch
6.7.b Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud
6.7.c Cisco pxGrid
6.7.d Cisco Umbrella Investigate
6.7.e Cisco Cognitive Threat Analytics
6.7.f Cisco Encrypted Traffic Analytics
6.7.g Cisco AnyConnect Network Visibility Module (NVM)
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Cisco
350-701
Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies
(SCOR)
https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/350-701
Question: 721
Which information is required when adding a device to Firepower Management Center?
A. username and password
B. encryption method
C. device serial number
D. registration key
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-configguide-v60/Device_Management_Basics.html#ID-2242-0000069d
Question: 722
Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?
A. WSA
B. Firepower
C. FireSIGHT
D. ASA
Answer: A
Question: 723
What are two list types within AMP for Endpoints Outbreak Control? (Choose two.)
A. blocked ports
B. simple custom detections
C. command and control
D. allowed applications
E. URL
Answer: BD
Explanation:
Reference: https://docs.amp.cisco.com/en/A4E/AMP%20for%20Endpoints%20User%20Guide.pdf chapter
Question: 724
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the capabilities from the left onto the correct technologies on the right.
Answer:
Question: 725
How does Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud provide security for cloud environments?
A. It delivers visibility and threat detection.
B. It prevents exfiltration of sensitive data.
C. It assigns Internet-based DNS protection for clients and servers.
D. It facilitates secure connectivity between public and private networks.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.content.shi.com/SHIcom/ContentAttachmentImages/SharedResources/FBLP/Cisco/Cisco-091919-Simple-IT-Whitepaper.pdf
Question: 726
Which statement about the configuration of Cisco ASA NetFlow v9 Secure Event Logging is true?
A. To view bandwidth usage for NetFlow records, the QoS feature must be enabled.
B. A sysopt command can be used to enable NSEL on a specific interface.
C. NSEL can be used without a collector configured.
D. A flow-export event type must be defined under a policy.
Answer: D
Question: 727
What are two Detection and Analytics Engines of Cognitive Threat Analytics? (Choose two.)
A. data exfiltration
B. command and control communication
C. intelligent proxy
D. snort
E. URL categorization
Answer: AB
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/security/cognitive-threat-analytics/at-aglance-c45-736555.pdf
Question: 728
Which two conditions are prerequisites for stateful failover for IPsec? (Choose two.)
A. Only the IKE configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device; the IPsec configuration is copied automatically.
B. The active and standby devices can run different versions of the Cisco IOS software but must be the same type of device.
C. The IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device.
D. Only the IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device; the IKE configuration is copied automatically.
E. The active and standby devices must run the same version of the Cisco IOS software and must be the same type of device.
Answer: BC
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/sec_conn_vpnav/configuration/15-mt/secvpn-availability-15-mt-book/sec-state-fail-ipsec.html
Question: 729
Which two key and block sizes are valid for AES? (Choose two.)
A. 64-bit block size, 112-bit key length
B. 64-bit block size, 168-bit key length
C. 128-bit block size, 192-bit key length
D. 128-bit block size, 256-bit key length
E. 192-bit block size, 256-bit key length
Answer: CD
Explanation:
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Advanced_Encryption_Standard
Question: 730
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the Firepower Next Generation Intrustion Prevention System detectors from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.
Answer:
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/640/configuration/guide/fpmc-configguide-v64/detecting_specific_threats.html
Question: 731
An administrator wants to ensure that all endpoints are compliant before users are allowed access on the corporate network. The endpoints must have the corporate antivirus application
installed and be running the latest build of Windows 10.
What must the administrator implement to ensure that all devices are compliant before they are allowed on the network?
A. Cisco Identity Services Engine and AnyConnect Posture module
B. Cisco Stealthwatch and Cisco Identity Services Engine integration
C. Cisco ASA firewall with Dynamic Access Policies configured
D. Cisco Identity Services Engine with PxGrid services enabled
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/vpn_client/anyconnect/anyconnect46/administration/guide/b_AnyConnect_Administrator_Guide_4-6/configure-posture.html
Question: 732
Which algorithm provides encryption and authentication for data plane communication?
A. AES-GCM
B. SHA-96
C. AES-256
D. SHA-384
Answer: A
Question: 733
Which two kinds of attacks are prevented by multifactor authentication? (Choose two.)
A. phishing
B. brute force
C. man-in-the-middle
D. DDOS
E. tear drop
Answer: BC
Question: 734
Which deployment model is the most secure when considering risks to cloud adoption?
A. public cloud
B. hybrid cloud
C. community cloud
D. private cloud
Answer: D
Question: 735
Which feature requires a network discovery policy on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?
A. security intelligence
B. impact flags
C. health monitoring
D. URL filtering
Answer: A
Question: 736
Which technology reduces data loss by identifying sensitive information stored in public computing environments?
A. Cisco SDA
B. Cisco Firepower
C. Cisco HyperFlex
D. Cisco Cloudlock
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/security/cloudlock/cisco-cloudlockcloud-data-security-datasheet.pdf
Question: 737
Which exfiltration method does an attacker use to hide and encode data inside DNS requests and queries?
A. DNS tunneling
B. DNSCrypt
C. DNS security
D. DNSSEC
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reference: https://learn-umbrella.cisco.com/cloud-security/dns-tunneling
Question: 738
What are the two most commonly used authentication factors in multifactor authentication? (Choose two.)
A. biometric factor
B. time factor
C. confidentiality factor
D. knowledge factor
E. encryption factor
Answer: AD
Question: 739
Which feature within Cisco Umbrella allows for the ability to inspect secure HTTP traffic?
A. File Analysis
B. SafeSearch
C. SSL Decryption
D. Destination Lists
Answer: C
/( 48(67,216
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